Practice FCC general2011 Practice Test

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Q 1:  How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
 (G0A03)
 
A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65.
B. By calculation based on computer modeling.
C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 2:  Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?
 (G0B14)
 
A. Acceptable bandwidth limits.
B. Acceptable modulation limits .
C. Electrical safety inside the ham shack.
D. RF exposure limits of the human body.
 
 
Q 3:  Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 80 meter band?
 (G1A09)
 
A. 1855 kHz.
B. 2560 kHz.
C. 3560 kHz.
D. 3650 kHz.
 
 
Q 4:  What is the power limit for beacon stations?
 (G1B10)
 
A. 10 watts PEP output.
B. 20 watts PEP output.
C. 100 watts PEP output.
D. 200 watts PEP output.
 
 
Q 5:  What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25 meter and 70 centimeter bands
 (G1C09)
 
A. 56 kilobaud .
B. 19.6 kilobaud .
C. 1200 baud .
D. 300 baud .
 
 
Q 6:  What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
 (G1D10)
 
A. 12 years.
B. 18 years.
C. 21 years .
D. There is no age limit.
 
 
Q 7:  In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC-issued General Class license?
 (G1E03)
 
A. Region 1.
B. Region 2.
C. Region 3.
D. All three regions.
 
 
Q 8:  Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?
 (G2A08)
 
A. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign.
B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations.
C. Say "Break. Break. Break." and wait for a response.
D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station.
 
 
Q 9:  What is the 'DX window' in a voluntary band plan?
 (G2B08)
 
A. A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States .
B. An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions on that band segment .
C. An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band .
D. A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only .
 
 
Q 10:  What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?
 (G2C03)
 
A. Listening for novice stations.
B. Operating full break-in.
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations.
D. Closing station now.
 
 
Q 11:  What information is traditionally contained in a station log?
 (G2D09)
 
A. Date and time of contact.
B. Band and/or frequency of the contact .
C. Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given .
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 12:  What does the abbreviation "RTTY" stand for?
 (G2E07)
 
A. Returning to you.
B. Radioteletype.
C. A general call to all digital stations.
D. Repeater transmission type.
 
 
Q 13:  At what point in the solar cycle does the 20 meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
 (G3A07)
 
A. At the summer solstice.
B. Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle.
C. Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle.
D. At any point in the solar cycle.
 
 
Q 14:  What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF)?
 (G3B06)
 
A. They are bent back to the Earth.
B. They pass through the ionosphere.
C. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere.
D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth.
 
 
Q 15:  Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?
 (G3C02)
 
A. Where the Sun is overhead.
B. Where the Sun is on the opposite side of the Earth.
C. Where the Sun is rising .
D. Where the Sun has just set .
 
 
Q 16:  What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
 (G4A01)
 
A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth.
B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband.
C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources.
D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band.
 
 
Q 17:  Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?
 (G4B11)
 
A. Receiver .
B. Transmitter .
C. Antenna and feed line .
D. All of these choices are correct .
 
 
Q 18:  Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers?
 (G4C13)
 
A. Band-pass tuning.
B. A Digital Signal Processor (DSP) filter.
C. Balanced mixing.
D. A noise limiter.
 
 
Q 19:  What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?
 (G4D01)
 
A. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions .
B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural sounding SSB signals.
C. Prevent distortion of voice signals.
D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out of band operation.
 
 
Q 20:  Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?
 (G4E11)
 
A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent.
B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment.
C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 21:  What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?
 (G5A12)
 
A. To minimize transmitter power output.
B. To maximize the transfer of power.
C. To reduce power supply ripple.
D. To minimize radiation resistance.
 
 
Q 22:  How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
 (G5B04)
 
A. 2.4 watts.
B. 24 watts.
C. 6 watts.
D. 60 watts.
 
 
Q 23:  Which part of a transformer is normally connected to the incoming source of energy?
 (G5C02)
 
A. The secondary .
B. The primary .
C. The core .
D. The plates.
 
 
Q 24:  Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?
 (G6A07)
 
A. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit.
B. The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable.
C. The resistor could overheat.
D. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit.
 
 
Q 25:  Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground?
 (G6B08)
 
A. To increase the beta of the transistor.
B. To improve the power dissipation capability.
C. To reduce stray capacitance.
D. To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground.
 
 
Q 26:  Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?
 (G6C09)
 
A. It requires ambient or back lighting.
B. It offers a wide dynamic range.
C. It has a wide viewing angle.
D. All of these choices are correct.
 
 
Q 27:  What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?
 (G7A04)
 
A. One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply.
B. One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply.
C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply.
D. Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply.
 
 
Q 28:  What is a shift register?
 (G7B06)
 
A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array.
B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri state arithmetic operations.
C. A digital mixer.
D. An analog mixer.
 
 
Q 29:  What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?
 (G7C11)
 
A. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software.
B. A radio which provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency.
C. A radio which uses crystal filters designed using software.
D. A computer model which can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process.
 
 
Q 30:  What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?
 (G8A02)
 
A. Phase convolution.
B. Phase modulation.
C. Angle convolution.
D. Radian inversion.
 
 
Q 31:  How does forward error correction allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?
 (G8B11)
 
A. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength.
B. By using the varicode character set.
C. By transmitting redundant information with the data.
D. By using a parity bit with each character.
 
 
Q 32:  In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed?
 (G9A06)
 
A. ohms per 1000 ft.
B. dB per 1000 ft.
C. ohms per 100 ft.
D. dB per 100 ft.
 
 
Q 33:  What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
 (G9B11)
 
A. 42 feet.
B. 84 feet.
C. 131 feet.
D. 263 feet.
 
 
Q 34:  How does the gain of a two-element delta-loop beam compare to the gain of a two-element quad antenna?
 (G9C16)
 
A. 3 dB higher.
B. 3 dB lower.
C. 2.54 dB higher.
D. About the same.
 
 
Q 35:  Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
 (G9D11)
 
A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies.
B. They must be used with an antenna tuner.
C. They must be fed with open wire line.
D. They have poor harmonic rejection.
 
 

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